A+ Answers Of The Following Questions

Question 1
Table 9.2
A firm has determined its optimal structure which is composed of the following sources and target market value proportions.
Debt: The firm can sell a 15-year, $1,000 par value, 8 percent bond for $1,050. A flotation cost of 2 percent of the face value would be required in addition to the premium of $50.
Common Stock: A firm’s common stock is currently selling for $75 per share. The dividend expected to be paid at the end of the coming year is $5. Its dividend payments have been growing at a constant rate for the last five years. Five years ago, the dividend was $3.10. It is expected that to sell, a new common stock issue must be underpriced $2 per share and the firm must pay $1 per share in flotation costs. Additionally, the firm has a marginal tax rate of 40 percent.
The firm’s after-tax cost of debt is ________. (See Table 9.2)
Answer
4.6 percent
7 percent
6 percent
7.7 percent
0.5 points

Question 2
Table 9.2
A firm has determined its optimal structure which is composed of the following sources and target market value proportions.
Debt: The firm can sell a 15-year, $1,000 par value, 8 percent bond for $1,050. A flotation cost of 2 percent of the face value would be required in addition to the premium of $50.
Common Stock: A firm’s common stock is currently selling for $75 per share. The dividend expected to be paid at the end of the coming year is $5. Its dividend payments have been growing at a constant rate for the last five years. Five years ago, the dividend was $3.10. It is expected that to sell, a new common stock issue must be underpriced $2 per share and the firm must pay $1 per share in flotation costs. Additionally, the firm has a marginal tax rate of 40 percent.
The firm’s cost of a new issue of common stock is ________. (See Table 9.2)
Answer
2. 17.0 percent
16.7 percent
10.2 percent
14.3 percent
0.5 points

Question 3
Table 9.2
A firm has determined its optimal structure which is composed of the following sources and target market value proportions.
Debt: The firm can sell a 15-year, $1,000 par value, 8 percent bond for $1,050. A flotation cost of 2 percent of the face value would be required in addition to the premium of $50.
Common Stock: A firm’s common stock is currently selling for $75 per share. The dividend expected to be paid at the end of the coming year is $5. Its dividend payments have been growing at a constant rate for the last five years. Five years ago, the dividend was $3.10. It is expected that to sell, a new common stock issue must be underpriced $2 per share and the firm must pay $1 per share in flotation costs. Additionally, the firm has a marginal tax rate of 40 percent.
Assuming the firm plans to pay out all of its earnings as dividends, the weighted average cost of capital is ________. (See Table 9.2)

Answer
3. 9.6 percent
12.1 percent
11.6 percent
10.9 percent
0.5 points

Question 1
Visualization involves appealing to matters that affect the personal well-being of your audience members.
True
False

Question 2
The following statement uses which method of speech conclusion? “You have all sat here patiently while I’ve filled your minds with example after example of lives taken needlessly due to faulty industrial equipment. Now I ask you to consider those examples and do something about it. Sign this letter; take a stand for industrial safety.”
summarizing
stating personal intentions
supplying additional inducement to belief
issuing a challenge or appeal

Question 3
The following is an example of which type of introduction? “There is a disease sweeping our country. None of us is immune. There are no drugs to treat it.”
startling statement
pertinent quotation
personal reference
reference to the occasion

Question 4
A question, whether rhetorical or not, can help to spark thinking about your subject.
True
False

Question 5
Which two attention factors both suggest uncertainty?
conflict and suspense
reality and vitality
activity and proximity
novelty and familiarity

Question 6
The following is an example of which method of speech introduction? “The maple outside this building looked different this morning. I looked at it carefully and discovered three nests in close proximity, all about the same size. Black squirrels were hustling from one nest to the next. It dawned on me that the squirrels were practicing the very concept that I had planned to speak about today: the extended family.”
using an illustration
using personal reference
referring to subject or occasion
making a startling statement

Question 7
All introductions should try to win the goodwill of your listeners.
True
False

Question 8
The opening lines of Charles Dickens’ famous novel, A Tale of Two Cities, are, “It was the best of times. It was the worst of times.” This contrast implies which factor of attention?
conflict
vitality
activity
suspense

Question 9
Which of these things does a good speech conclusion not do?
return to the viewpoints articulated earlier in the speech
reaffirm the speaker’s goals for the speech
remind the audience why you are credible
recapture the tone that the speech started with

Question 10
Which of the following is NOT a primary goal of an introduction?
establish the speaker’s qualifications
orient the listeners’ attention
rebut any likely arguments
lay out the speech’s ideas and their development

Question 11
A speaking outline should include everything you want to say in your speech.
True
False

Question 12
Based upon the requirements of a good outline form, what is wrong with the following?
I. Students in public schools should be allowed a “moment of silence” to meditate, pray or reflect. Instituting a moment of silence would not exclude on the basis of religious background. On the contrary, it would allow each student to use that time in his or her own way. Many schools have adopted this practice and it has yielded a positive reaction from students.
A consistent set of symbols should be used.
Each item in the outline should contain one main idea.
The logical relation of items in an outline should be shown by proper indentation.
Less important ideas in the outline should be subordinated to more important ideas.

Question 13
Less important ideas in an outline should be subordinate to more important ones.
True
False

Question 14
Knowledge of perceptual grouping constructs will not help you as you evaluate your outline.
True
False

Question 15
For the sake of economy, each note card of your speaking outline can contain multiple ideas.
True
False

Question 16
A good way to construct a technical plot outline is to set your full sentence outline next to a blank piece of paper and, on the blank sheet opposite each outline unit, identify all the technical elements of the speech.
True
False

Question 17
Proximity, continuity, contiguity, closure, and similarity are
terms that refer to different parts of speech outlines.
different types of outlines that can be used in writing speeches.
ways to gain and maintain the attention of listeners.
common constructs with which we group new bits of information.

Question 18
Psychologists argue that we learn by
talking to others about our ideas.
organizing our ideas into outlines.
adding new bits of information to old constructs.
going to class and taking careful notes.

Question 19
Closure refers to:
we group stimuli together that are close together when presented to us
we tend to simplify and to find similarities among things rather than differences
we connect events that occur closely together in time and space
we complete figures by filling in the gaps or adding missing connections

Question 20
The primary purpose of the speaking outline is to test your ideas.
True
False

Question 1
Chronological patterns, spatial patterns, and causal patterns are examples of
search methods for the web.
types of arrangement.
forms of argument.
speaking outlines.

Question 2
Which of the following organizational patterns is useful when your goal is to give listeners a sense of development or motion?
chronological order
topical
spatial
causal

Question 3
Extrinsic motivation refers to
inaction that occurs as a result of a particular speech.
incentives audiences create from within that encourage them to act.
acting because a speaker asks the audience to do so.
incentives, such as prizes or grades, offered to an audience in exchange for action on their part.

Question 4
If listener’s are not well informed about a particular topic, which would be the best organizational pattern for the body of a speech?
temporal order
cause-effect
historical chronology
effect-cause

Question 5
Which step in Monroe’s Motivated Sequences allows you to use positive, negative, or contrasting methods to achieve it?
The Action Step
The Attention Step
The Visualization Step
The Need Step

Question 6
Illustration occurs when you add more examples, additional statistics, testimony from experts, and other forms of support to drive your analysis home.
True
False

Question 7
In which step of Monroe’s Motivated Sequence does the speaker lay out a proposal?
the satisfaction step
the need step
the attention step
the visualization step

Question 8
If you were to arrange ideas or subtopics in terms of their physical proximity or relationship to each other you would most likely be using which organizational pattern?
spatial
topical
chronological
causal

Question 9
Juaquin has lived all over the world. To convey his experience of culture shock in his speech, he orders his main points from the first place he lived, Japan, to the last place, Germany. He is using which form of verbal organization?
physical space
narrative order
numerical order
topic order

Question 10
Sharon gave a speech about vacation spots in the United States. She began by exploring vacation spots in the East, then the Midwest, and finished with Western vacation spots. Sharon’s pattern of organization was
causal.
spatial.
topical.
chronological.

Question 11
“The gentleman sleeping in the front row shows what I mean by auditory oblivion,” is an example of
negative definition.
stipulative definition.
contextual definition.
exemplar definition.

Question 12
Kendra says in her speech, “The “glass ceiling” is a term coined to describe the barriers many women encounter in the corporate world.” Which method of definition is being used?
negative definition
exemplar definition
stipulative definition
contextual definition

Question 13
If you focus on the origin of a particular word, you are using a(n)
negative definition.
contextual definition.
dictionary definition.
etymological definition.

Question 14
If a speaker describes the sensations while jogging and refers to the agony of muscle cramps and the joy of a second wind, which type of imagery is being used?
kinesthetic
gustatory
organic
olfactory

Question 15
Travis relates the story of falling from a tree when he was a child by saying, “my body hit the ground with an enormous thud followed by a sickening snap when my arm broke.” Which type of imagery was being used?
visual
olfactory
gustatory
auditory

Question 16
The statement, “The bright light exploded through my eyes, sending a searing pain to the base of my skull” is an example of organic imagery.
True
False

Question 17
Which of the following is a quality of the oral style?
social
ephemeral
face to face
all of the above

Question 18
The statement, “After carrying the bags for over a mile, my hands and shoulders were aching” is an example of kinesthetic imagery.
True
False

Question 19

If I were to substitute the word “stubborn” for “contrary” in a speech, I would most likely be addressing the issue of simplicity.
True
False

Question 20
Putting ideas into words and actions is
encoding.
feedback.
referencing.
decoding.

1. National Corp. purchases $1,000 of supplies on credit. As a result its
a. current assets will increase by $1,000
b. current assets will decrease by $1,000
c. current assets will remain the same
d. total assets will decrease by $1,000

2. A journal does all of the following except
a. summarizes all of the transactions that effect one account in a “T-account”
b. records all the assets of a company
c. records each day’s transactions
d. records all the revenues and expenses of a company

3. Which of the following requires a debit?
a. decrease in assets
b. decrease in liabilities
c. increase in liabilities
d. increase in stockholders’ equity

4. Which of the following requires a credit?
a. decreases in liabilities
b. decreases in stockholders’ equity
c. increases to assets
d. increases to liabilities

5. ABC Co. received $20,000 from investors and in return issued $20,000 of stock. As a result of this transaction, what journal entry is required?
a. debit cash $20,000 and credit contributed capital $20,000
b. debit cash $20,000 and debit contributed capital $20,000
c. credit cash 20,000 and credit contributed capital $20,000
d. credit cash $20,000 and debit contributed capital $20,000

6. National Corporation purchased $10,000 of furnishings and equipment for cash. As a result of this transaction, what journal entry is required?
a. debit cash $10,000 and credit furnishings and equipment $10,000
b. debit furnishings and equipment $10,000 and credit cash $10,000
c. debit furnishings and equipment $10,000 and debit cash $10,000
d. credit furnishings and equipment $10,000 and credit cash $10,000

7. XMO, Inc. borrowed $25,000 from a bank, signing a formal agreement to repay the loan plus interest in five years. XMO placed the borrowed money in its checking account. What is the impact of this transaction?
a. current assets are increased and current liabilities are increased
b. noncurrent assets are increased and current liabilities are increased
c. current assets are increased and noncurrent liabilities are increased
d. noncurrent assets are increased and noncurrent liabilities are increased

8. The Hawk Co. borrowed $30,000 from a bank, depositing those funds in its bank account and signing a formal agreement to repay the loan in two years. What is the correct journal entry for this transaction?
a. debit notes payable and credit cash for $30,000
b. debit notes payable and debit cash for $30,000
c. credit notes payable and credit cash for $30,000
d. debit cash and credit notes payable for $30,000

9. The Enterprise Co. paid $4,000 cash to purchase furnishings and equipment. What is the impact of this transaction?
a. total assets are decreased
b. current assets are decreased
c. current assets stay the same
d. total assets are increased

1. Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka was a Supreme Court decision that

(A) was a forerunner of the Kansas-Nebraska Act

(B) established free public colleges in the United States

(C) declared racially segregated public schools inherently unequal

(D) established free public elementary and secondary schools in the United States

(E) provided for federal support of parochial schools

2. Joseph McCarthy’s investigative tactics found support among many Americans because

(A) evidence substantiated his charges against the army

(B) there was widespread fear of communist infiltration of the United States

(C) both Truman and Eisenhower supported him

(D) he worked closely with the FBI

(E) he correctly identified numerous communists working in the State Department

3. Which of the following best describes the National Defense Education Act of 1958?

(A) The authorization of martial arts classes for public schools

(B) An outpouring of self-defense class funding to counter a potential Soviet invasion

(C) The beginning of federal funding for public schools

(D) A response to Sputnik and the perceived technology gap between the US and USSR

(E) The establishment of the back-to-basics movement for public schools

4. The Truman Doctrine did which of the following?

(A) Prohibited United States intervention in the Caribbean.

(B) Warned against European seizure of the Panama Canal.

(C) Sought to end the wave of nationalization of American-owned property in Latin America.

(D) Declared the United States to be the “policeman” for democracy worldwide.

(E) Provided United States military support for democratically elected socialists in Latin       America and Asia.

5. One of the principal reasons for the “good old days” nostalgia for the 1950s is because it was a decade marked by

(A) an enormous increase in drinking among minors

(B) absenteeism among factory workers

(C) a much higher divorce rate

(D) growing acceptance of domestic violence for stressed male breadwinners

(E) an enormous growth of the White middle class

6. The Hartley-Taft Act of 1947 led to

(A) all industrial, mining and agricultural workers combining to form “one big union”

(B) limits on the ability of unions to partake in management decisions of their employers

(C) intellectuals and workers forming a labor party for political action

(D) unskilled workers being able to join a union

(E) workers joining a fraternal organization in support of communism

7. “From what I have seen of our Russian friends and Allies during the war, I am convinced that there is nothing they admire so much as strength, and there is nothing for which they have less respect than for weakness, especially military weakness. For that reason the old doctrine of a balance of power is unsound. We cannot afford, if we can help it, to work on narrow margins, offering temptations to a trial of strength. If the Western Democracies stand together in strict adherence to the principles of the United Nations Charter, their influence for furthering those principles will be immense and no one is likely to molest them. If however they become divided or falter in their duty and if these all-important years are allowed to slip away then indeed catastrophe may overwhelm us all.”

This line of reason is most typical of

(A) transcendentalism

(B) existentialism

(C) anti-Communism

(D) pacification

(E) French impressionism

8. The policy of internationalism and aggressive interventionism after World War II had which of the following effects on the United States?

(A) It left the armed forces unprepared for a potential war against the Soviet Union

(B) It discouraged American involvement in the United Nations

(C) It enabled its economy to dominate the free world

(D) It encouraged a new wave of European imperialism and plans for territorial expansion

(E) It provided windfall profits to the emerging African nations

9. One of the principal reasons for the failure of McCarthyism was

(A) the return of the Socialist Party as a prominent political force

(B) the inability of Hollywood to make movies about Communism

(C) the refusal of White progressives to support McCarthy in 1954

(D) the failure of teachers in the South to sign loyalty oaths

(E) the waning of support for unsubstantiated accusations from both political parties

10. Southern state governments did all of the following in stalling desegregation EXCEPT

(A) the creation of separate public universities for African Americans

(B) the development of separate Whites-only private schools

(C) the closing of public schools to avoid the prospect of racial integration

(D) the inclusion of African Americans in the political process for the first time

(E) the provision of funds for rebuilding and expanding Ku Klux Klan networks           throughout the South

11. In the period 1945–1960, all of the following were generally true about African Americans EXCEPT:

(A) Voting rights were gained primarily through migrations away from the South.

(B) The National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP)         endorsed the Back-to-Africa movement.

(C) African American leaders disagreed on the principal strategy for ending segregation.

(D) Numerous African Americans involved themselves in civil rights campaigns in both          the North and the South.

(E) African Americans from the rural South migrated mostly to northern and West Coast      cities.

12. Conservative opponents of the United Nations argued that it would

(A) isolate the United States from postwar world affairs

(B) prevent the US from aggressively confronting Communism around the world

(C) violate President Truman’s own Truman Doctrine

(D) limit United States sovereignty

(E) give England and France a greater role than the United States in maintaining world         peace

13. Which of the following best characterizes the stance of the writers associated with a variety of literary flowerings of the 1950’s, such as J.D. Salinger and Jack Kerouac?

(A) Sympathy for Protestant fundamentalism

(B) Nostalgia for the “good old days”

(C) Commitment to the cause of racial equality

(D) Advocacy of cultural isolationism and conformity with traditional values

(E) Disillusionment with and criticism of middle-class conformity and materialism

14. Which was NOT an effect of the American Housing Act of 1949?

(A) The successful integration of Blacks into middle class White communities

(B) The opening up of the suburbs to the American working-class and lower middle class

(C) The availability of cheap land for real estate companies and industrial concerns

(D) The policy of building high-rise public housing in densely populated urban areas

(E) The emergence of the suburbs as the cultural center of the American nuclear family

15. Which new technology revolutionized advertising and was the basis for a new consumer culture in the 1950s?

(A) Television

(B) Radio

(C) Newspapers

(D) Billboards

(E) Catalogues

16. Mass immigration to the US between 1945 and 1960 involved which one (1) of the following groups?

(A) Jews

(B) Chinese

(C) Arabs

(D) Poles

(E) Vietnamese

17. The purpose of the 22nd Amendment was to

(A) grant women the right to vote

(B) limit the presidency to two terms

(C) establish a federal income tax

(D) abolish the institution of slavery

(E) maintain that corporations are people

18. America became an economic and military superpower by and after 1945 because

(A) it was a period of little material benefit for American workers

(B) of the large numbers of strikes that occurred

(C) it was an age in which the US economy expanded like never before

(D) not possessing an atomic weapon was a dominant theme of this era.

(E) armies and navies made heavy use of cannon to protect their borders

19. Suburban growth in the US accelerated between 1945 and 1980 for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

(A) mass immigration from Southern and Eastern Europe

(B) much higher birth rates than in previous periods in US history

(C) the movement of industries outside of city centers

(D) the use of prefabricated materials to construct housing on relatively cheaper land

(E) the use of low-interest government-backed loans to make it easier to buy a home

20. Which Congressional act paved the way for the reconstruction of Europe and Japan in the years after World War II?

(A) The Homestead Act

(B) The New Deal

(C) The Fair Deal

(D) The Marshall Plan

(E) The Eisenhower Plan

21. US interventions in Iran in 1952 in Guatemala in 1954 led directly to which of the following results in these two countries?

(A) Independence

(B) The rise of Communism

(C) The rise of dictatorships

(D) Annexation

(E) Economic prosperity

22. Between 1945 and 1960, banks and real estate agencies colluded to

(A) split the profits made from government-backed mortgages

(B) inflate real estate and housing assets and profits before selling

(C) increase competition by dividing up large companies into smaller ones

(D) provide higher wages to unionized workers

(E) force Blacks to buy relatively expensive, low-quality housing in poorer communities

23. African Americans migrated to the cities of the urban North and Midwest during and after World War II for all the following reasons EXCEPT:

(A) greater opportunities for industrial jobs

(B) Northern Whites welcomed them with open arms

(C) the lack of economic opportunities in the South

(D) better conditions for educating their children

(E) the high risk of violence from Southern Whites

24. Babies born in the 1945-1960 period were commonly known as:

(A) Beatniks

(B) The Greatest Generation

(C) Baby Boomers

(D) Hippies

(E) Divas

25. Which Supreme Court decision was the basis for establishing legal racial discrimination in the South after 1896, the one that was overturned in 1954?

(A) Marbury v. Madison

(B) Griswold v. Connecticut

(C) Plessy v. Ferguson

(D) Standard Oil v. United States

 

(E) Brown v. Board of Education

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